The labor force is often organized as if workers had no family responsibilities. Preschool-age children need full-time care; children in primary school need care after school and during school vacations. Although day-care services can resolve some scheduling conflicts between home and office, workers cannot always find or afford suitable care. Even when they obtain such care, parents must still cope with emergencies, such as illnesses, that keep children at home. Moreover, children need more than tending; they also need meaningful time with their parents. Conventional full-time workdays, especially when combined with unavoidable household duties, are too inflexible for parents with primary child-care responsibility.

Although a small but increasing number of working men are single parents, those barriers against successful participation in the labor market that are related to primary child-care responsibilities mainly disadvantage women. Even in families where both parents work, cultural pressures are traditionally much greater on mothers than on fathers to bear the primary child-rearing responsibilities.

In reconciling child-rearing responsibilities with participation in the labor market, many working mothers are forced to make compromises. For example, approximately one-third of all working mothers are employed only part-time, even though part-time jobs are dramatically underpaid and often less desirable in comparison to full-time employment. Even though part-time work is usually available only in occupations offering minimal employee responsibility and little opportunity for advancement or self-enrichment, such employment does allow many women the time and flexibility to fulfill their family duties, but only at the expense of the advantages associated with full-time employment.

Moreover, even mothers with full-time employment must compromise opportunities in order to adjust to barriers against parents in the labor market. Many choose jobs entailing little challenge or responsibility or those offering flexible scheduling, often available only in poorly paid positions, while other working mothers, although willing and able to assume as much responsibility as people without children, find that their need to spend regular and predictable time with their children inevitably causes them to lose career opportunities to those without such demands. Thus, women in education are more likely to become teachers than school administrators, whose more conventional full-time work schedules do not correspond to the schedules of school-age children, while female lawyers are more likely to practice law in trusts and estates, where they can control their work schedules, than in litigation, where they cannot.

Nonprofessional women are concentrated in secretarial work and department store sales, where their absences can be covered easily by substitutes and where they can enter and leave the work force with little loss, since the jobs offer so little personal gain. Indeed, as long as the labor market remains hostile to parents, and family roles continue to be allocated on the basis of gender, women will be seriously disadvantaged in that labor market.

1.    Which one of the following best summarizes the main idea of the passage?
(A) Current trends in the labor force indicate that working parents, especially women, may not always need to choose between occupational and child-care responsibilities.
(B) In order for mothers to have an equal opportunity for advancement in the labor force, traditional family roles have to be reexamined and revised.
(C) Although single parents who work have to balance parental and career demands, single mothers suffer resulting employment disadvantages that single fathers can almost always avoid.
(D) Although child-care responsibilities disadvantage many women in the labor force, professional women (such as teachers and lawyers) are better able to overcome this problem than are nonprofessional women.
(E) Traditional work schedules are too inflexible to accommodate the child-care responsibilities of many parents, a fact that severely disadvantages women in the labor force.

2.    Which one of the following statements about part-time work can be inferred from the information presented in the passage?
(A) One-third of all part-time workers are working mothers.
(B) Part-time work generally offers fewer opportunities for advancement to working mothers than to women generally.
(C) Part-time work, in addition to having relatively poor wages, often requires that employees work during holidays, when their children are out of school.
(D) Part-time employment, despite its disadvantages, provides working mothers with an opportunity to address some of the demands of caring for children.
(E) Many mothers with primary child-care responsibility choose part-time jobs in order to better exploit full-time career opportunities after their children are grown.

3.    It can be inferred from the passage that the author would be most likely to agree with which one of the following statements about working fathers in two-parent families?
(A) They are equally burdened by the employment disadvantages placed upon all parents—male and female—in the labor market.
(B) They are so absorbed in their jobs that they often do not see the injustice going on around them.
(C) They are shielded by the traditional allocation of family roles from many of the pressures associated with child-rearing responsibilities.
(D) They help compound the inequities in the labor market by keeping women form competing with men for career opportunities.
(E) They are responsible for many of the problems of working mothers because of their insistence on traditional roles in the family.

4.    Of the following, which one would the author most likely say is the most troublesome barrier facing working parents with primary child-care responsibility?
(A) the lack of full-time jobs open to women
(B) the inflexibility of work schedules
(C) the low wages of part-time employment
(D) the limited advancement opportunities for nonprofessional employees
(E) the practice of allocating responsibilities in the workplace on the basis of gender

5.    The passage suggests that day care is at best a limited solution to the pressures associated with child rearing for all of the following reasons EXCEPT:
(A) Even the best day care available cannot guarantee that children will have meaningful time with their parents.
(B) Some parents cannot afford day-care services.
(C) Working parents sometimes have difficulty finding suitable day care for their children.
(D) Parents who send their children to day care still need to provide care for their children during vacations.
(E) Even children who are in day care may have to stay home when they are sick.

6.    According to the passage, many working parents may be forced to make any of the following types of career decisions EXCEPT
(A) declining professional positions for nonprofessional ones, which typically have less conventional work schedules
(B) accepting part-time employment rather than full-time employment
(C) taking jobs with limited responsibility, and thus more limited career opportunities, in order to have a more flexible schedule
(D) pursuing career specializations that allow them to control their work schedules instead of pursuing a more desirable specialization in the same field
(E) limiting the career potential of one parent, often the mother, who assumes greater child-care responsibility

7.    Which one of the following statements would most appropriately continue the discussion at the end of the passage?
(A) At the same time, most men will remain better able to enjoy the career and salary opportunities offered by the labor market.
(B) Of course, men who are married to working mothers know of these employment barriers but seem unwilling to do anything about them.
(C) On the other hand, salary levels may become more equitable between men and women even if the other career opportunities remain more accessible to men than to women.
(D) On the contrary, men with primary child-rearing responsibilities will continue to enjoy more advantages in the workplace than their female counterparts.
(E) Thus, institutions in society that favor men over women will continue to widen the gap between the career opportunities available for men and for women.

In recent years the early music movement, which advocates performing a work as it was performed at the time of its composition, has taken on the character of a crusade, particularly as it has moved beyond the sphere of medieval and baroque music and into music from the late eighteenth and early nineteenth centuries by composers such as Mozart and Beethoven. Granted, knowledge about the experience of playing old music on now-obsolete instruments has been of inestimable value to scholars. Nevertheless, the early music approach to performance raises profound and troubling questions.

Early music advocates assume that composers write only for the instruments available to them, but evidence suggests that composers of Beethoven’s stature imagined extraordinarily high and low notes as part of their compositions, even when they recognized that such notes could not be played on instruments available at the time. In the score of Beethoven’s first piano concerto, there is a “wrong” note, a high F-natural where the melody obviously calls for a high F-sharp, but pianos did not have this high an F-sharp when Beethoven composed the concerto. Because Beethoven once expressed a desire to revise his early works to exploit the extended range of pianos that became available to him some years later, it seems likely that he would have played the F-sharp if given the opportunity. To use a piano exactly contemporary with the work’s composition would require playing a note that was probably frustrating for Beethoven himself to have had to play.

In addition, early music advocates often inadvertently divorce music and its performance from the life of which they were, and are, a part. The discovery that Haydn’s and Mozart’s symphonies were conducted during their lifetimes by a pianist who played the chords to keep the orchestra together has given rise to early music recordings in which a piano can be heard obtrusively in the foreground, despite evidence indicating that the orchestral piano was virtually inaudible to audiences at eighteenth-century concerts and was dropped as musically unnecessary when a better way to beat time was found. And although in the early nineteenth century the first three movements (sections) of Mozart’s and Beethoven’s symphonies were often played faster, and the last movement slower than today, this difference can readily be explained by the fact that at that time audiences applauded at the end of each movement, rather than withholding applause until the end of the entire work. As a result, musicians were not forced into extra brilliance in the finale in order to generate applause, as they are now. To restore the original tempo of these symphonies represents an irrational denial of the fact that our concepts of musical intensity and excitement have quite simply, changed.

1.    It can be inferred from the passage that by “a piano exactly contemporary” (line 30) with the composition of Beethoven’s first piano concerto, the author means the kind of piano that was
(A) Designed to be inaudible to the audience when used by conductors of orchestras.
(B) Incapable of playing the high F-natural that is in the score of Beethoven’s original version of the concerto.
(C) Unavailable to Mozart and Haydn.
(D) Incapable of playing the high F-sharp that the melody of the concerto calls for.
(E) Influential in Beethoven’s decision to revise his early compositions.

2.    Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the passage?
(A) The early music movement has yet to resolve a number of troubling questions regarding its approach to the performance of music.
(B) The early music movement, while largely successful in its approach to the performance of medieval and baroque music, has yet to justify its use of obsolete instruments in the performance of music by Beethoven and Mozart.
(C) The early music approach to performance often assumes that composers write music that is perfectly tailored to the limitations of the instruments on which it will be performed during their lifetimes.
(D) Although advocates of early music know much about the instruments used to perform music at the time it was composed, they lack information regarding how the style of such performances has changed since such music was written.
(E) The early music movement has not yet fully exploited the knowledge that it has gained from playing music on instruments available at the time such music was composed.

3.    In the second paragraph, the author discusses Beethoven’s first piano concerto primarily in order to
(A) Illustrate how piano music began to change in response to the extended range of pianos that became available during Beethoven’s lifetime.
(B) Illustrate how Beethoven’s work failed to anticipate the changes in the design of instruments that were about to be made during his lifetime.
(C) Suggest that early music advocates commonly perform music using scores that do not reflect revisions made to the music years after it was originally composed.
(D) Illustrate how composers like Beethoven sometimes composed music that called for notes that could not be played on instruments that were currently available.
(E) Provide an example of a piano composition that is especially amenable to being played on piano available at the time the music was composed.

4.    The author suggests that the final movements of symphonies by Mozart and Beethoven might be played more slowly by today’s orchestras if which one of the following were to occur?
(A) Orchestras were to use instruments no more advanced in design than those used by orchestras at the time Mozart and Beethoven composed their symphonies.
(B) Audiences were to return to the custom of applauding at the end of each movement of a symphony.
(C) Audiences were to reserve their most enthusiastic applause for the most brilliantly played finales.
(D) Conductors were to return to the practice of playing the chords on an orchestral piano to keep the orchestra together.
(E) Conductors were to conduct the symphonies in the manner in which Beethoven and Mozart had conducted them.

5.    Which one of the following best describes the organization of the last paragraph?
(A) A generalization is made evidence undermining it is presented, and a conclusion rejecting it is then drawn.
(B) A criticism is stated and then elaborated with two supporting examples.
(C) An assumption is identified and then evidence undermining its validity is presented.
(D) An assumption is identified and then evidence frequently provided in support of it is then critically evaluated.
(E) Two specific cases are presented and then a conclusion regarding their significance is drawn.

6.    It can be inferred from the passage that the author’s explanationwould be most weakened if which one of the following were true?
(A) Musicians who perform in modern orchestras generally receive more extensive training than did their nineteenth-century counterparts.
(B) Breaks between the movements of symphonies performed during the early nineteenth century often lasted longer than they do today because nineteenth-century musicians needed to retune their instruments between each movement.
(C) Early nineteenth-century orchestral musicians were generally as concerned with the audience’s response to their music as are the musicians who perform today in modern orchestras.
(D) Early nineteenth-century audience applauded only perfunctorily after the first three movements of symphonies and conventionally withheld their most enthusiastic applause until the final movement was completed.
(E) Early nineteenth-century audiences were generally more knowledgeable about music than are their modern counterparts.

7.    It can be inferred from the passage that the author would be most likely to agree with which one of the following assertions regarding the early music recordings mentioned in the third paragraph?
(A) These recordings fail to recognize that the last movements of Haydn’s and Mozart’s symphonies were often played slower in the eighteenth century than they are played today.
(B) These recordings betray the influence of baroque musical style on those early music advocates who have recently turned their attention to the music of Haydn and Mozart.
(C) By making audible the sound of an orchestral piano that was inaudible in eighteenth century performances, these recordings attempt to achieve aesthetic integrity at the expense of historical authenticity.
(D) By making audible the sound of an orchestral piano that was inaudible in eighteenth century performances, these recordings unwittingly create music that is unlike what eighteenth century audiences heard.
(E) These recordings suggest that at least some advocates of early music recognize that concepts of musical intensity and excitement have changed since Haydn and Mozart composed their symphonies.

8.    The author suggests that the modern audience’s tendency to withhold applause until the end of a symphony’s performance is primarily related to which one of the following?
(A) The replacement of the orchestral piano as a method of keeping the orchestra together.
(B) A gradual increase since the time of Mozart and Beethoven in audiences’ expectations regarding the ability of orchestral musicians.
(C) A change since the early nineteenth century in audiences’ concepts of musical excitement and intensity.
(D) A more sophisticated appreciation of the structural integrity of the symphony as a piece of music.
(E) The tendency of orchestral musicians to employ their most brilliant effects in the early.

Literary critics are fond of referring to a work
as a “musical novel” whenever a writer
employs techniques that can be conveniently
described in musical terminology, but the
(5) notion that all such works are of the same
genre is an oversimplification. The writers
who have given us the most important
“musical novels” have used musical techniques
for very different purposes.

(10) In The Waves, Virginia Woolf uses musical
techniques to evoke imagery. Early in the
novel, a descriptive leitmotif is introduced
for each of the six characters, and colors
associated with different settings are like
(15) chords that are sounded again and again. A
musical composition, however, is heard in
time; a novel exists outside of time. In this
sense, the words of a novel are more like the
notes of a score, and the reader like the
(20) musician; so Woolf needed a literary device
to keep time. Her solution is again visual and
is expressed in the novel’s title. The rise and
fall of the sea waves are a metronome, seen
but not heard by the reader; like the
(25)movements of the conductor’s baton, they provide
the tempo.

In Moderato Cantabile, Marguerite Duras
follows the form of the first movement of a
sonata, presenting and developing two
(30) contrasting themes in different keys–the
first tonic, the second dominant–and finally
resolving them in a recapitulation by modulation
of the second theme to the key of the
first theme, thereby providing resolution and
(35) closure, an interesting form for exploring the
duality of human experience. “Moderato”
indicates measure and control, and the time
signature of the sonata is a square four-four:
Anne’s life is structured and boring.
(40) “Cantabile” signifies the lyrical impulse: She
is stifled by a structured, boring life. In the
second chapter, Anne begins her strange
affair with Chauvin. Chauvin, or the second
theme, is Anne’s quest for the “cantabile.”
(45) They meet again and again, at the same bar
and always at the same time of day, until the
eighth chapter. Then, just as the eighth note
of the musical scale is the same as the first–
the tonic–but an octave higher, the final
(50) resolution comes in the form of a symbolic
reenactment of the murder that occurs at the
end of the first chapter:

Chauvin: I wish you were dead.
Anne: I already am.

(60) And Anne returns permanently to her boring life.

When most literary critics pronounce
both The Waves and Moderato Cantabile
“musical novels,” it is these gross features
(65) that they have in mind; and so they overlook
what makes Moderato Cantabile a truly
musical novel: It is actually “heard” by the
reader. The novel is mostly dialogue punctuated
by the sounds of a radio, boats, and
(70) crowds, like musical phrases defined by rests;
all that we know and all that we need to
know of Anne and Chauvin is what we hear
them say. Ironically, this technique that
makes Moderato Cantabile more successful
(75) than The Waves as a “musical novel” may
account for Duras’ relative lack of success as a
filmmaker. Despite the great success of her
screenplay for “Hiroshima, Mon Amour,” few
of the 19 films that she wrote and directed
(80) did well, primarily because words often
replaced action entirely.

1. The author’s primary concern is to
(A) provide a definition for the phrase “musical novel”
(B) compare the literary works of Virginia Woolf
to those of Marguerite Duras
(C) show that the term “musical novel” does not
have a clear, unambiguous meaning
(D) provide guidelines for interpreting musical novels
(E) evaluate the relative effectiveness of different
literary techniques

2. According to the author, The Waves is less
successful than Moderato Cantabile in creating the
experience of music for the reader because
(A) Woolf used musical devices primarily to evoke
visual images
(B) sea waves make a rhythmic crashing sound as
they break on the beach
(C) The Waves does not parallel a musical structure
such as a sonata
(D) a conductor’s baton is seen but not heard by
audience members
(E) the title Moderato Cantabile has a musical
significance

3. The author mentions Duras’ lack of success
as a filmmaker in order to
(A) prove that good novelists do not necessarily
make good filmmakers
(B) help show that dialogue has a different effect
than imagery
(C) demonstrate that Duras was an artist who was
more than just a writer
(D) suggest that a successful filmmaker needs to use
action as well as dialogue
(E) suggest that most great novels cannot be made
into great films

4. Which of the following conclusions can be inferred
about the musical structure of Moderato Cantabile?
(A) Chapter two of the novel is intended to represent
the recapitulation.
(B) The symbolic re-enactment of the murder represents
the modulation of the second theme.
(C) Anne corresponds to the tonic theme, and Chauvin
corresponds to the dominant theme.
(D) Anne’s return to her previous life corresponds to the
end of a sonata.
(E) The murder in the first chapter echoes the “moderato”
of the novel’s title.

5. Which of the following musical interpretations of the
final exchange between Anne and Chauvin would the author
most likely agree with?
(A) The Anne theme has been modulated into the Chauvin
theme and continues to survive Anne’s departure.
(B) Chauvin has absorbed the Anne theme, thereby
providing the reconciliation of the final part of the movement.
(C) Anne has renounced the Anne theme in favor of the
Chauvin theme, so no reconciliation has actually occurred.
(D) Both the Anne theme and the Chauvin theme continue
to exist side by side in Anne and can never be reconciled.
(E) The Chauvin theme has been modulated into the Anne
theme and thereby extinguished in a reconciliation.

6. With which of the following statements would the
author most likely agree?
(A) The musical form of the sonata is ideal for exploring
the complexities of human feelings.
(B) Music is a more effective art form for expressing the
duality of experience than literature.
(C) Unless a novel has a title and subject matter that
suggest musical form, it cannot be “heard” by the reader.
(D) Novels with musical structures are interesting
experiments but will not likely produce serious literature.
(E) Musical structures and techniques can be used to
enhance the effectiveness of a literary work.

7. The author’s attitude toward Duras’ work
can best be described as
(A) studied neutrality
(B) muted criticism
(C) scholarly indifference
(D) qualified admiration
(E) unbridled enthusiasm

Although the United States steel industry faces widely publicized economic problems that have eroded its steel production capacity, not all branches of the industry have been equally affected. The steel industry is not monolithic: it includes integrated producers, minimills, and
specialty-steel mills. The integrated producers start with iron ore and coal and produce a wide assortment of shaped steels. The minimills reprocess scrap steel into a limited range of low-quality products, such as reinforcing rods for concrete. The specialty-steel mills are similar
to minimills in that they tend to be smaller than the integrated producers and are based on scrap, but they manufacture much more expensive products than minimills do and commonly have an active in-house research-and-development effort.

Both minimills and specialty-steel mills have succeeded in avoiding the worst of the economic difficulties that are afflicting integrated steel producers, and some of the mills are quite profitable. Both take advantage of new technology for refining and casting steel, such as continuous casting, as soon as it becomes available. The minimills concentrate on producing a narrow range of products for sale in their immediate geographic area, whereas specialty-steel mills preserve flexibility in their operations in order to fulfill a customer’s particular specifications.
Among the factors that constrain the competitiveness of integrated producers are excessive labor, energy, and capital costs, as well as manufacturing inflexibility. Their equipment is old and less automated, and does not incorporate many of the latest refinement in steelmaking
technology. (For example, only about half of the United States integrated producers have continuous casters, which combine pouring and rolling into one operation and thus save the cost of separate rolling equipment.) One might conclude that the older labor-intensive machinery still operating in United States integrated plants is at fault for the poor performance
of the United States industry, but this cannot explain why Japanese integrated producers, who produce a higher-quality product using less energy and labor, are also experiencing economic trouble. The fact is that the common technological denominator of integrated producers is an
inherently inefficient process that is still rooted in the nineteenth century.
Integrated producers have been unable to compete successfully with minimills because the minimills, like specialty-steel mills, have dispensed almost entirely with the archaic energy and capital-intensive front end of integrated steelmaking: the iron-smelting process, including
the mining and preparation of the raw materials and the blast-furnace operation. In addition, minimills have found a profitable way to market steel products: as indicated above, they sell their finished products locally, thereby reducing transportation costs, and concentrate on a
limited range of shapes and sizes within a narrow group of products that can be manufactured economically. For these reasons, minimills have been able to avoid the economic decline affecting integrated steel producers.

1. Which one of the following best expresses the main idea of the

passage?
(A) United States steel producers face economic problems that are shared

by producers in other nations.
(B) Minimills are the most successful steel producers because they best

meet market demands for cheap steel.
(C) Minimills and specialty-steel mills are more economically competitive

than integrated producers because they use new technology and avoid the

costs of the iron-smelting process.
(D) United States steel producers are experiencing an economic decline

that can be traced back to the nineteenth century.
(E) New steelmaking technologies such as continuous casting will replace

blast-furnace operations to reverse the decline in United States steel

production.

2.    The author mentions all of the following as features of minimills

EXCEPT
(A) flexibility in their operations
(B) local sale of their products
(C) avoidance of mining operations
(D) use of new steel-refining technology
(E) a limited range of low-quality products

3.    The author of the passage refers to “Japanese integrated

producers” (line 43) primarily in order to support the view that
(A) different economic difficulties face the steel industries of

different nations
(B) not all integrated producers share a common technological denominator
(C) labor-intensive machinery cannot be blamed for the economic condition

of United States integrated steel producers
(D) modern steelmaking technology is generally labor-and energy-efficient
(E) labor-intensive machinery is an economic burden on United States

integrated steel producers

4.    Which one of the following best describes the organization of the

third paragraph?
(A) A hypothesis is proposed and supported; then an opposing view is

presented and criticized.
(B) A debate is described and illustrated: then a contrast is made and

the debate is resolved.
(C) A dilemma is described and cited as evidence for a broader criticism.
(D) A proposition is stated and argued, then rejected in favor of a more

general statement, which is supported with additional evidence.
(E) General statements are made and details given; then an explanation is

proposed and rejected, and an alternative is offered.

5.    It can be inferred from the passage that United States

specialty-steel mills generally differ from integrated steel producers in

that the specialty-steel mills
(A) sell products in a restricted geographical area
(B) share the economic troubles of the minimills
(C) resemble specialty-steel mills found in Japan
(D) concentrate on producing a narrow range of products
(E) do not operate blast furnaces

6.    Each of the following describes an industry facing a problem also

experienced by United Stated integrated steel producers EXCEPT
(A) a paper-manufacturing company that experiences difficulty in

obtaining enough timber and other raw materials to meet its orders
(B) a food-canning plant whose canning machines must constantly be tended

by human operators
(C) a textile firm that spends heavily on capital equipment and energy to

process raw cotton before it is turned into fabric
(D) a window-glass manufacturer that is unable to produce quickly

different varieties of glass with special features required by certain

customers
(E) a leather-goods company whose hand-operated cutting and stitching

machines were manufactured in Italy in the 1920s

7.    Which one of the following, if true, would best serve as

supporting evidence for the author’s explanation of the economic

condition of integrated steel producers?
(A) Those nations that derive a larger percentage of their annual steel

production from minimills than the United States does also have a smaller

per capita trade deficit.
(B) Many integrated steel producers are as adept as the specialty-steel

mills at producing high-quality products to meet customer specifications.
(C) Integrated steel producers in the United States are rapidly adopting

the production methods of Japanese integrated producers.
(D) Integrated steel producers in the United States are now attempting to

develop a worldwide market by advertising heavily.
(E) Those nations in which iron-smelting operations are carried out

independently of steel production must heavily subsidize those operations

in order to make them profitable.

Gray marketing, the selling of trademarked products through channels of distribution not authorized by the trademark holder, can involve distribution of goods either within a market region or across market boundaries. Gray marketing within a market region (“channel flow diversion”) occurs when manufacturer-authorized distributors sell trademarked goods to unauthorized distributors who then sell the goods to consumers within the same region. For example, quantity discounts from manufacturers may motivate authorized dealers to enter the gray market because they can purchase larger quantities of a product than they themselves intend to stock if they can sell the extra units through gray marketing channels.
When gray marketing occurs across market boundaries, it is typically in an international setting and may be called “parallel importing.” Manufacturers often produce and sell products in more than one country and establish a network of authorized dealers in each country. Parallel importing occurs when trademarked goods intended for one country are diverted from proper channels (channel flow diversion) and then exported to unauthorized distributors in another country.

Trademark owners justifiably argue against gray marketing practices since such practices clearly jeopardize the goodwill established by trademark owners: consumers who purchase trademarked goods in the gray market do not get the same “extended product,” which typically includes pre- and postsale service. Equally important, authorized distributors may cease to promote the product if it becomes available for much lower prices through unauthorized channels.

Current debate over regulation of gray marketing focuses on three disparate theories in trademark law that have been variously and confusingly applied to parallel importation cases: universality, exhaustion, and territoriality. The theory of universality holds that a trademark is only an indication of the source or origin of the product. This theory does not recognize the goodwill functions of a trademark. When the courts apply this theory, gray marketing practices are allowed to continue because the origin of the product remains the same regardless of the specific route of the product through the channel of distribution. The exhaustion theory holds that a trademark owner relinquishes all rights once a product has been sold. When this theory is applied, gray marketing practices are allowed to continue because the trademark owners’ rights cease as soon as their products are sold to a distributor. The theory of territoriality holds that a trademark is effective in the country in which it is registered. Under the theory of territoriality, trademark owners can stop gray marketing practices in the registering countries on products bearing their trademarks. Since only the territoriality theory affords trademark owners any real legal protection against gray marketing practices, I believe it is inevitable as well as desirable that it will come to be consistently applied in gray marketing cases.

1) Which one of the following best expresses the main point of the passage?
(A) Gray marketing is unfair to trademark owners and should be legally controlled.
(B) Gray marketing is practiced in many different forms and places, and legislators should recognize the futility of trying to regulate it.
(C) The mechanisms used to control gray marketing across markets are different from those most effective in controlling gray marketing within markets.
(D) The three trademark law theories that have been applied in gray marketing cases lead to different case outcomes.
(E) Current theories used to interpret trademark laws have resulted in increased gray marketing activity.

2) The function of the passage as a whole is to
(A) criticize the motives and methods of those who practice gray marketing
(B) evaluate the effects of both channel flow diversion and parallel importation
(C) discuss the methods that have been used to regulate gray marketing and evaluate such methods’ degrees of success
(D) describe a controversial marketing practice and evaluate several legal views regarding it
(E) discuss situations in which certain marketing practices are common and analyze the economic factors responsible for their development

3) Which one of the following does the author offer as an argument against gray marketing?
(A) Manufacturers find it difficult to monitor the effectiveness of promotional efforts made on behalf of products that are gray marketed.
(B) Gray marketing can discourage product promotion by authorized distributors.
(C) Gray marketing forces manufacturers to accept the low profit margins that result from quantity discounting.
(D) Gray marketing discourages competition among unauthorized dealers.
(E) Quality standards in the manufacture of products likely to be gray marketed may decline.

4) The information in the passage suggests that proponents of the theory of territoriality would probably differ from proponents of the theory of exhaustion on which one of the following issues?
(A) the right of trademark owners to enforce, in countries in which the trademarks are registered, distribution agreements intended to restrict distribution to authorized channels
(B) the right of trademark owners to sell trademarked goods only to those distributors who agree to abide by distribution agreements
(C) the legality of channel flow diversion that occurs in a country other than the one in which a trademark is registered
(D) the significance consumers attach to a trademark
(E) the usefulness of trademarks as marketing tools

5) The author discusses the impact of gray marketing on goodwill in order to
(A) fault trademark owners for their unwillingness to offer a solution to a major consumer complaint against gray marketing
(B) indicate a way in which manufacturers sustain damage against which they ought to be protected
(C) highlight one way in which gray marketing across markets is more problematic than gray marketing within a market
(D) demonstrate that gray marketing does not always benefit the interests of unauthorized distributors
(E) argue that consumers are unwilling to accept a reduction in price in exchange for elimination of service

6) The author’s attitude toward the possibility that the courts will come to exercise consistent control over gray marketing practices can best be characterized as one of
(A) resigned tolerance
(B) utter dismay
(C) reasoned optimism
(D) unbridled fervor
(E) cynical indifference

7) It can be inferred from the passage that some channel flow diversion might be eliminated if
(A) profit margins on authorized distribution of goods were less than those on goods marketed through parallel importing
(B) manufacturers relieved authorized channels of all responsibility for product promotion
(C) manufacturers charged all authorized distributors the same unit price for products regardless of quantity purchased
(D) the postsale service policies of authorized channels were controlled by manufacturers
(E) manufacturers refused to provide the “extended product” to consumers who purchase goods in the gray market

Although numbers of animals in a given region may fluctuate from year to year, the fluctuations are often temporary and, over long periods, trivial. Scientists have advanced three theories of population control to account for this relative constancy.
The first theory attributes a relatively constant population to periodic climatic catastrophes that decimate populations with such frequency as to prevent them from exceeding some particular limit. In the case of small organisms with short life cycles, climatic changes need not be catastrophic: normal seasonal changes in photoperiod (daily amount of sunlight), for example, can govern population growth. This theory—the density-independent view—asserts that climatic factors exert the same regulatory effect on population regardless of the number of individuals in a region.

A second theory argues that population growth is primarily density-dependent—that is, the rate of growth of a population in a region decreases as the number of animals increases. The mechanisms that manage regulation may vary. For example, as numbers increase, the food supply would probably diminish, which would increase mortality. In addition, as Lotka and Volterra have shown, predators can find prey more easily in high-density populations. Other regulators include physiological control mechanisms: for example, Christian and Davis have demonstrated how the crowding that results from a rise in numbers may bring about hormonal changes in the pituitary and adrenal glands that in turn may regulate population by lowering sexual activity and inhibiting sexual maturation. There is evidence that these effects may persist for three generations in the absence of the original provocation. One challenge for density-dependent theorists is to develop models that would allow the precise prediction of the effects of crowding.

A third theory, proposed by Wynne-Edwards and termed “epideictic,” argues that organisms have evolved a “code” in the form of social or epideictic behavior displays, such as winter-roosting aggregations or group vocalizing; such codes provide organisms with information on population size in a region so that they can, if necessary, exercise reproductive restraint. However, Wynne-Edwards’ theory, linking animal social behavior and population control, has been challenged, with some justification, by several studies.

1) The primary purpose of the passage is to
(A) argue against those scientists who maintain that animal populations tend to fluctuate
(B) compare and contrast the density-dependent and epideictic theories of population control
(C) provide example of some of the ways in which animals exercise reproductive restraint to control their own numbers
(D) suggests that theories of population control that concentrate on the social behavior of animals are more open to debate than are theories that do not
(E) summarize a number of scientific theories that attempt to explain why animal populations do not exceed certain limits

2) It can be inferred from the passage that proponents of the density-dependent theory of population control have not yet been able to
(A) use their theory to explain the population growth of organisms with short life cycles
(B) reproduce the results of the study of Christian and Davis
(C) explain adequately why the numbers of a population can increase as the population’s rate of growth decreases
(D) make sufficiently accurate predictions about the effects of crowding
(E) demonstrate how predator populations are themselves regulated

3) Which of the following, if true, would best support the density-dependent theory of population control as it is described in the passage?
(A) As the number of foxes in Minnesota decrease, the growth rate of this population of foxes begins to increase.
(B) As the number of woodpeckers in Vermont decreases, the growth rate of this population of woodpeckers also begins to decrease.
(C) As the number of prairie dogs in Oklahoma increases, the growth rate of this population of prairie dogs also begins to increase.
(D) After the number of beavers in Tennessee decreases, the number of predators of these beavers begins to increase.
(E) After the number of eagles in Montana decreases, the food supply of this population of eagles also begins to decrease.

4) According to the Wynne-Edwards theory as it is described in the passage, epideictic behavior displays serve the function of
(A) determining roosting aggregations
(B) locating food
(C) attracting predators
(D) regulating sexual activity
(E) triggering hormonal changes

5) The challenge posed to the Wynne-Edwards-theory by several studies is regarded by the author with
(A) complete indifference
(B) qualified acceptance
(C) skeptical amusement
(D) perplexed astonishment
(E) agitated dismay

6) Which of the following statements would provide the most of logical continuation of the final paragraph of the passage?
(A) Thus Wynne-Edwards’ theory raises serious questions about the constancy of animal population in a region.
(B) Because Wynne-Edwards’ theory is able to explain more kinds of animal behavior than is the density-dependent theory, epideictic explanations of population regulation are now widely accepted.
(C) The results of one study, for instance, have suggested that group vocalizing is more often used to defend territory than to provide information about population density.
(D) Some of these studies have, in fact, worked out a systematic and complex code of social behavior that can regulate population size.
(E) One study, for example, has demonstrated that birds are more likely to use winter-roosting aggregations than group vocalizing in order to provide information on population size.

In recent years, teachers of introductory courses in Asian American studies have been facing a dilemma nonexistent a few decades ago, when hardly any texts in that field were available. Today, excellent anthologies and other introductory texts exist, and books on individual Asian American nationality groups and on general issues important for Asian Americans are published almost weekly. Even professors who are experts in the field find it difficult to decide which of these to assign to students; nonexperts who teach in related areas and are looking for writings for and by Asian American to include in survey courses are in an even worse position.

A complicating factor has been the continuing lack of specialized one-volume reference works on Asian Americans, such as biographical dictionaries or desktop encyclopedias. Such works would enable students taking Asian American studies courses (and professors in related fields) to look up basic information on Asian American individuals, institutions, history, and culture without having to wade through mountains of primary source material. In addition, give such works, Asian American studies professors might feel more free to include more challenging Asian American material in their introductory reading lists, since good reference works allow students to acquire on their own the background information necessary to interpret difficult or unfamiliar material.

1) The author of the passage is primarily concerned with doing which of the following?
(A) Recommending a methodology
(B) Describing a course of study
(C) Discussing a problem
(D) Evaluating a past course of action
(E) Responding to a criticism

2) The “dilemma” mentioned in line 2 can best be characterized as being caused by the necessity to make a choice when faced with a
(A) lack of acceptable alternatives
(B) lack of strict standards for evaluating alternatives
(C) preponderance of bad alternatives as compared to good
(D) multitude of different alternatives
(E) large number of alternatives that are nearly identical in content

3) The passage suggests that the factor mentioned in lines 14-17 complicates professors’ attempts to construct introductory reading lists for courses in Asian American studies in which of the following ways?
(A) By making it difficult for professors to identify primary source material and to obtain standard information on Asian American history and culture
(B) By preventing professors from identifying excellent anthologies and introductory texts in the field that are both recent and understandable to students
(C) By preventing professors from adequately evaluating the quality of the numerous texts currently being published in the field
(D) By making it more necessary for professors to select readings for their courses that are not too challenging for students unfamiliar with Asian American history and culture
(E) By making it more likely that the readings professors assign to students in their courses will be drawn solely from primary sources

4) The passage implies that which of the following was true of introductory courses in Asian American studies a few decades ago?
(A) The range of different textbooks that could be assigned for such courses was extremely limited.
(B) The texts assigned as readings in such courses were often not very challenging for students.
(C) Students often complained about the texts assigned to them in such courses.
(D) Such courses were offered only at schools whose libraries were rich in primary sources.
(E) Such courses were the only means then available by which people in the United States could acquire knowledge of the field.

5) According to the passage, the existence of good one-volume reference works about Asian Americans could result in
(A) increased agreement among professors of Asian American studies regarding the quality of the sources available in their field
(B) an increase in the number of students signing up for introductory courses in Asian American studies
(C) increased accuracy in writings that concern Asian American history and culture
(D) the use of introductory texts about Asian American history and culture in courses outside the field of Asian American studies
(E) the inclusion of a wider range of Asian American material in introductory reading lists in Asian American studies

Species interdependence in nature confers many benefits on the species involved, but it
can also become a point of weakness when one species involved in the relationship is
affected by a catastrophe. Thus, flowering plant species dependent on insect
pollination, as opposed to self-pollination or wind pollination, could be endangered
when the population of insect-pollinators is depleted by the use of pesticides.
In the forests of New Brunswick, for example, various pesticides have been sprayed in
the past 25 years in efforts to control the spruce budworm, an economically significant
pest. Scientists have now investigated the effects of the spraying of Matacil, one of
the anti-budworm agents that is least toxic to insect-pollinators. They studied
Matacil’s effects on insect mortality in a wide variety of wild insect species and on
plant fecundity, expressed as the percentage of the total flowers on an individual
plant that actually developed fruit and bore seeds.
They found that the most pronounced mortality after the spraying of Matacil occurred
among the smaller bees and one family of flies, insects that were all important
pollinators of numerous species of plants growing beneath the tree canopy of forests.
The fecundity of plants in one common indigenous species, the red-osier dogwood, was
significantly reduced in the sprayed areas as compared to that of plants in control
plots where Matacil was not sprayed. This species is highly dependent on the
insect-pollinators most vulnerable to Matacil. The creeping dogwood, a species similar
to the red-osier dogwood, but which is pollinated by large bees, such as bumblebees,
showed no significant decline in fecundity. Since large bees are not affected by the
spraying of Matacil, these results add weight to the argument that spraying where the
pollinators are sensitive to the pesticide used decreases plant fecundity.
The question of whether the decrease in plant fecundity caused by the spraying of
pesticides actually causes a decline in the overall population of flowering plant
species still remains unanswered. Plant species dependent solely on seeds for survival
or dispersal are obviously more vulnerable to any decrease in plant fecundity that
occurs, whatever its cause. If, on the other hand, vegetative growth and dispersal (by
means of shoots or runners) are available as alternative reproductive strategies for a
species, then decreases in plant fecundity may be of little consequence.
The fecundity
effects described here are likely to have the most profound impact on plant species
with all four of the following characteristics: a short life span, a narrow geographic
range, an incapacity for vegetative propagation, and a dependence on a small number of
insect-pollinator species. Perhaps we should give special attention to the conservation
of such plant species since they lack key factors in their defenses against the
environmental disruption caused by pesticide use.

1) Which of the following best summarizes the main point of the passage?
(A) Species interdependence is a point of weakness for some plants, but is generally
beneficial to insects involved in pollination.
(B) Efforts to control the spruce budworm have had deleterious effects on the red-osier
dogwood.
(C) The used of pesticides may be endangering certain plant species dependent on
insects for pollination.
(D) The spraying of pesticides can reduce the fecundity of a plant species, but
probably does not affect its overall population stability.
(E) Plant species lacking key factors in their defenses against human environmental
disruption will probably become extinct.

2) According to the author, a flowering plant species whose fecundity has declined due
to pesticide spraying may not experience an overall population decline if the plant

species can do which of the following?
(A) Reproduce itself by means of shoots and runners.
(B) Survive to the end of the growing season.
(C) Survive in harsh climates.
(D) Respond to the fecundity decline by producing more flowers.
(E) Attract large insects as pollinators.

3) The passage suggests that the lack of an observed decline in the fecundity of the
creeping dogwood strengthens the researchers conclusions regarding pesticide use
because the

(A) creeping dogwood is a species that does not resemble other forest plants
(B) creeping dogwood is a species pollinated by a broader range of insect species than
are most dogwood species
(C) creeping dogwood grows primarily in regions that were not sprayed with pesticide,
and so served as a control for the experiment
(D) creeping dogwood is similar to the red-osier dogwood, but its insect pollinators
are known to be insensitive to the pesticide used in the study
(E) geographical range of the creeping dogwood is similar to that of the red-osier
dogwood, but the latter species relies less on seeds for reproduction

4) The passage suggests that which of the following is true of the forest regions in
New Brunswick sprayed with most anti-budworm pesticides other than Matacil?

(A) The fecundity of some flowering plants in those regions may have decreased to an
even greater degree than in the regions where Matacil is used.
(B) Insect mortality in those regions occurs mostly among the larger species of
insects, such as bumblebees.
(C) The number of seeds produced by common plant species in those regions is probably
comparable to the number produced where Matacil is sprayed.
(D) Many more plant species have become extinct in those regions than in the regions
where Matacil is used.
(E) The spruce budworm is under better control in those regions than in the regions
where Matacil is sprayed.

5) It can be inferred that which of the following is true of plant fecundity as it is
defined in the passage?

(A) A plant’s fecundity decreases as the percentage of unpollinated flowers on the
plant increases.
(B) A plant’s fecundity decreases as the number of flowers produced by the plant
decreases.
(C) A plant’s fecundity increases as the number of flowers produced by the plant
increases.
(D) A plant’s fecundity is usually low if the plant relies on a small number of insect
species for pollination.
(E) A plant’s fecundity is high if the plant can reproduce quickly by means of
vegetative growth as well as by the production of seeds.

6) It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following plant species would
be LEAST likely to experience a decrease in fecundity as a result of the spraying of a

pesticide not directly toxic to plants?
(A) A flowering tree pollinated by only a few insect species
(B) A kind of insect-pollinated vine producing few flowers
(C) A wind-pollinated flowering tree that is short-lived
(D) A flowering shrub pollinated by a large number of insect species
(E) A type of wildflower typically pollinated by larger insects

7) Which of the following assumptions most probably underlies the author’s tentative
recommendation in lines 51-54?

(A) Human activities that result in environmental disruption should be abandoned.
(B) The use of pesticides is likely to continue into the future.
(C) It is economically beneficial to preserve endangered plant species.
(D) Preventing the endangerment of a species is less costly than trying to save an

already endangered one.
(E) Conservation efforts aimed at preserving a few well-chosen species are more

cost-effective than are broader-based efforts to improve the environment.