Species interdependence in nature confers many benefits on the species involved, but it
can also become a point of weakness when one species involved in the relationship is
affected by a catastrophe. Thus, flowering plant species dependent on insect
pollination, as opposed to self-pollination or wind pollination, could be endangered
when the population of insect-pollinators is depleted by the use of pesticides.
In the forests of New Brunswick, for example, various pesticides have been sprayed in
the past 25 years in efforts to control the spruce budworm, an economically significant
pest. Scientists have now investigated the effects of the spraying of Matacil, one of
the anti-budworm agents that is least toxic to insect-pollinators. They studied
Matacil’s effects on insect mortality in a wide variety of wild insect species and on
plant fecundity, expressed as the percentage of the total flowers on an individual
plant that actually developed fruit and bore seeds.
They found that the most pronounced mortality after the spraying of Matacil occurred
among the smaller bees and one family of flies, insects that were all important
pollinators of numerous species of plants growing beneath the tree canopy of forests.
The fecundity of plants in one common indigenous species, the red-osier dogwood, was
significantly reduced in the sprayed areas as compared to that of plants in control
plots where Matacil was not sprayed. This species is highly dependent on the
insect-pollinators most vulnerable to Matacil. The creeping dogwood, a species similar
to the red-osier dogwood, but which is pollinated by large bees, such as bumblebees,
showed no significant decline in fecundity. Since large bees are not affected by the
spraying of Matacil, these results add weight to the argument that spraying where the
pollinators are sensitive to the pesticide used decreases plant fecundity.
The question of whether the decrease in plant fecundity caused by the spraying of
pesticides actually causes a decline in the overall population of flowering plant
species still remains unanswered. Plant species dependent solely on seeds for survival
or dispersal are obviously more vulnerable to any decrease in plant fecundity that
occurs, whatever its cause. If, on the other hand, vegetative growth and dispersal (by
means of shoots or runners) are available as alternative reproductive strategies for a
species, then decreases in plant fecundity may be of little consequence.
The fecundity
effects described here are likely to have the most profound impact on plant species
with all four of the following characteristics: a short life span, a narrow geographic
range, an incapacity for vegetative propagation, and a dependence on a small number of
insect-pollinator species. Perhaps we should give special attention to the conservation
of such plant species since they lack key factors in their defenses against the
environmental disruption caused by pesticide use.

1) Which of the following best summarizes the main point of the passage?
(A) Species interdependence is a point of weakness for some plants, but is generally
beneficial to insects involved in pollination.
(B) Efforts to control the spruce budworm have had deleterious effects on the red-osier
dogwood.
(C) The used of pesticides may be endangering certain plant species dependent on
insects for pollination.
(D) The spraying of pesticides can reduce the fecundity of a plant species, but
probably does not affect its overall population stability.
(E) Plant species lacking key factors in their defenses against human environmental
disruption will probably become extinct.

2) According to the author, a flowering plant species whose fecundity has declined due
to pesticide spraying may not experience an overall population decline if the plant

species can do which of the following?
(A) Reproduce itself by means of shoots and runners.
(B) Survive to the end of the growing season.
(C) Survive in harsh climates.
(D) Respond to the fecundity decline by producing more flowers.
(E) Attract large insects as pollinators.

3) The passage suggests that the lack of an observed decline in the fecundity of the
creeping dogwood strengthens the researchers conclusions regarding pesticide use
because the

(A) creeping dogwood is a species that does not resemble other forest plants
(B) creeping dogwood is a species pollinated by a broader range of insect species than
are most dogwood species
(C) creeping dogwood grows primarily in regions that were not sprayed with pesticide,
and so served as a control for the experiment
(D) creeping dogwood is similar to the red-osier dogwood, but its insect pollinators
are known to be insensitive to the pesticide used in the study
(E) geographical range of the creeping dogwood is similar to that of the red-osier
dogwood, but the latter species relies less on seeds for reproduction

4) The passage suggests that which of the following is true of the forest regions in
New Brunswick sprayed with most anti-budworm pesticides other than Matacil?

(A) The fecundity of some flowering plants in those regions may have decreased to an
even greater degree than in the regions where Matacil is used.
(B) Insect mortality in those regions occurs mostly among the larger species of
insects, such as bumblebees.
(C) The number of seeds produced by common plant species in those regions is probably
comparable to the number produced where Matacil is sprayed.
(D) Many more plant species have become extinct in those regions than in the regions
where Matacil is used.
(E) The spruce budworm is under better control in those regions than in the regions
where Matacil is sprayed.

5) It can be inferred that which of the following is true of plant fecundity as it is
defined in the passage?

(A) A plant’s fecundity decreases as the percentage of unpollinated flowers on the
plant increases.
(B) A plant’s fecundity decreases as the number of flowers produced by the plant
decreases.
(C) A plant’s fecundity increases as the number of flowers produced by the plant
increases.
(D) A plant’s fecundity is usually low if the plant relies on a small number of insect
species for pollination.
(E) A plant’s fecundity is high if the plant can reproduce quickly by means of
vegetative growth as well as by the production of seeds.

6) It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following plant species would
be LEAST likely to experience a decrease in fecundity as a result of the spraying of a

pesticide not directly toxic to plants?
(A) A flowering tree pollinated by only a few insect species
(B) A kind of insect-pollinated vine producing few flowers
(C) A wind-pollinated flowering tree that is short-lived
(D) A flowering shrub pollinated by a large number of insect species
(E) A type of wildflower typically pollinated by larger insects

7) Which of the following assumptions most probably underlies the author’s tentative
recommendation in lines 51-54?

(A) Human activities that result in environmental disruption should be abandoned.
(B) The use of pesticides is likely to continue into the future.
(C) It is economically beneficial to preserve endangered plant species.
(D) Preventing the endangerment of a species is less costly than trying to save an

already endangered one.
(E) Conservation efforts aimed at preserving a few well-chosen species are more

cost-effective than are broader-based efforts to improve the environment.

In 1990 all of the people who applied for a job at Evco also applied for a job at Radeco, and Evco
and Radeco each offered jobs to half of these appli- cants. Therefore, every one of these applicants must have been offered a job in 1990. The argument above is based on which of the
following assumptions about these job applicants?

(A) All of the applicants were very well qualified for a job at either Evco or Radeco.
(B) All of the applicants accepted a job at either Evco or Radeco.
(C) None of the applicants was offered a job by both Evco and Radeco.
(D) None of the applicants had applied for jobs at places other than Evco and Radeco.
(E) None of the applicants had perviously worked for either Evco or Radeco

Most studies of recent Southeast Asian immigrants to the United States have focused on their adjustment to life in their adopted country and on the effects of leaving their homelands. James Tollefson’s Alien Winds examines the resettlement process from a different perspective by investigating the educational programs offered in immigrant processing centers. Based on interviews, transcripts from classes, essays by immigrants, personal visits to a teacher-training unit, and official government documents, Tollefson relies on an impressive amount and variety of documentation in making his arguments about processing centers’ educational programs.

Tollefson’s main contention is that the emphasis placed on immediate employment and on teaching the values, attitudes, and behaviors that the training personnel think will help the immigrants adjust more easily to life in the United States is often counterproductive and demoralizing. Because of concerns that the immigrants be self-supporting as soon as possible, they are trained almost exclusively for low-level jobs that do not require English proficiency. In this respect, Tollefson claims, the processing centers suit the needs of employers more than they suit the long-term needs of the immigrant community. Tollefson also detects a fundamental flaw in the attempts by program educators to instill in the immigrants the traditionally Western principles of self-sufficiency and individual success. These efforts often have the effect of undermining the immigrants’ sense of community and, in doing so, sometimes isolate them from the moral support and even from business opportunities afforded by the immigrant community. The programs also encourage the immigrants to shed their cultural traditions and ethnic identity and adopt the lifestyles, beliefs, and characteristics of their adopted country if they wish to enter fully into the national life.

Tollefson notes that the ideological nature of these educational programs has roots in the turn-of-the-century educational programs designed to assimilate European immigrants into United States society. Tollefson provides a concise history of the assimilationist movement in immigrant education, in which European immigrants were encouraged to leave behind the ways of the Old World and to adopt instead the principles and practices of the New World.

Tollefson ably shows that the issues demanding real attention in the educational programs for Southeast Asian immigrants are not merely employment rates and government funding, but also the assumptions underpinning the educational values in the programs. He recommends many improvements for the programs, including giving the immigrants a stronger voice in determining their needs and how to meet them, redesigning the curricula, and emphasizing long-term language education and job training over immediate employment and the avoiding of public assistance. Unfortunately, though, Tollefson does not offer enough concrete solutions as to how these reforms could be carried out, despite his own descriptions of the complicated bureaucratic nature of the programs.

1) Which one of the following statements best expresses the main idea of the passage?
(A) Tollefson’s focus on the economic and cultural factors involved in adjusting to a new country offers a significant departure from most studies of Southeast Asian immigration.
(B) In his analysis of educational programs for Southeast Asian immigrants, Tollefson fails to acknowledge many of the positive effects the programs have had on immigrants’ lives.
(C) Tollefson convincingly blames the philosophy underlying immigrant educational programs for some of the adjustment problems afflicting Southeast Asian immigrants.
(D) Tollefson’s most significant contribution is his analysis of how Southeast Asian immigrants overcome the obstacles they encounter in immigrant educational programs.
(E) Tollefson traces a gradual yet significant change in the attitudes held by processing center educators toward Southeast Asian immigrants.

2) With which one of the following statements concerning the educational programs of the immigration centers would Tollefson most probably agree?
(A) Although the programs offer adequate job training, they offer inadequate English training.
(B) Some of the programs’ attempts to improve the earning power of the immigrants cut them off from potential sources of income.
(C) Inclusion of the history of immigration in the United States in the programs’ curricula facilitates adjustment for the immigrants.
(D) Immigrants would benefit if instructors in the programs were better prepared to teach the curricula developed in the teacher-training courses.
(E) The programs’ curricula should be redesigned to include greater emphasis on the shared values, beliefs, and practices in the United States.

3) Which one of the following best describes the opinion of the author of the passage with respect to Tollefson’s work?
(A) thorough but misguided
(B) innovative but incomplete
(C) novel but contradictory
(D) illuminating but unappreciated
(E) well documented but unoriginal

4) The passage suggests that which one of the following is an assumption underlying the educational approach in immigrant processing centers?
(A) There is a set of values and behaviors that if adopted by immigrants, facilitate adjustment to United States society.
(B) When recent immigrants are self-supporting rather than supported by public assistance, they tend to gain English proficiency more quickly.
(C) Immediate employment tends to undermine the immigrants sense of community with each other.
(D) Long-term success for immigrants is best achieved by encouraging the immigrants to maintain a strong sense of community.
(E) The principles of self-sufficiency and individual success are central to Southeast Asian culture and ethnicity.

5) Which one of the following best describes the function of the first paragraph of the passage?
(A) It provides the scholarly context for Tollefson’s study and a description of his methodology.
(B) It compares Tollefson’s study to other works and presents the main argument of his study.
(C) It compares the types of documents Tollefson uses to those used in other studies.
(D) It presents the accepted theory on Tollefson’s topic and the method by which Tollefson challenges it.
(E) It argues for the analytical and technical superiority of Tollefson’s study over other works on the topic.

6) The author of the passage refers to Tollefson’s descriptions of the bureaucratic nature of the immigrant educational programs in the fourth paragraph most probably in order to
(A) criticize Tollefson’s decision to combine a description of the bureaucracies with suggestions for improvement
(B) emphasize the author’s disappointment in Tollefson’s overly general recommendations for improvements to the programs
(C) point out the irony of Tollefson concluding his study with suggestions for drastic changes in the programs
(D) support a contention that Tollefson’s recommendations for improvements do not focus on the real sources of the programs’ problems
(E) suggest a parallel between the complexity of the bureaucracies and the complexity of Tollefson’s arguments

It is not likely that the competitive imbalance that now exists between Japan with all major industrial nations will be redressed during the foreseeable future.

(A) with all major industrial nations will be redressed during
(B) with all other major industrial nations will be redressed within
(C) with all other major industrial nations will be redressed during
(D) and all major industrial nations will be redressed during
(E) and all other major industrial nations will be redressed within

A prominent investor who holds a large stake in the Burton Tool company has recently claimed that the company is mismanaged, citing as evidence the company’s failure to slow production in response to a recent rise in its inventory of finished products. It is doubtful whether an investor’s sniping at management can ever be anything other than counterproductive, but in this case it is clearly not justified. It is true that an increased inventory of finished products often indicates that production is outstripping demand, but in Burton’s case it indicates no such thing. Rather, the increase in inventory is entirely attributable to products that have already been assigned to orders received from customers.

In the argument given, the two boldfaced portions (”company is mismanaged” and “but in this case it is clearly not justified”) play which of the following roles?

A. The first states the position that the argument as a whole opposes; the second provides evidence to undermine the support for the position being opposed.

B. The first states the position that the argument as a whole opposes; the second is evidence that has been used to support the position being opposed.

C. The first states the position that the argument as a whole opposes; the second states the conclusion of the argument as a whole.

D. The first is evidence that has been used to support a position that the argument as a whole opposes; the second provides information to undermine the force of that evidence.

E. The first is evidence that has been used to support a position that the argument as a whole opposes; the second states the conclusion of the argument as a whole.

William Hornby acquired bison herds for breeding stock hoping that this move would eventually lead to increasing in their numbers, and a fortification of their environment.

A) increasing in their numbers,
B) an increase in their numbers,
C) their increase in numbers,
D) an increasing in numbers,
E) an increasing in the numbers of them,

Mahatma Gandhi’s is credited as having championed a nonviolent approach to reform as apractical and moral means to struggle against social injustice.

A. as having
B. with having
C. to have
D. as the one who
E. for being the one who

J. G. A. Pocock’s numerous investigations have all revolved around the fruitful assumption that a work of political thought can only be understood in light of the linguistic constraints to which its author was subject, for these prescribed both the choice of subject matter and the author’s conceptualization of this subject matter. Only the occasional epic theorist, like Machiavelli or Hobbes, succeeded in breaking out of these bonds by redefining old terms and inventing new ones. The task of the modern commentator is to identify the “language” or “vocabulary” with and within which the author operated. While historians of literature have always been aware that writers work within particular traditions, the application of this notion to the history of political ideas forms a sharp contrast to the assumptions of the 1950s, when it was naively thought that the close reading of a text by an analytic philosopher was sufficient to establish its meaning, even if the philosopher had no knowledge of the period of the text’s composition.

The language Pocock has most closely investigated is that of “civic humanism.” For much of his career he has argued that eighteenth-century English political thought should be interpreted as a conflict between rival versions of the “virtue” central to civic humanism. On the one hand, he argues, this virtue is described by representatives of the Tory opposition using a vocabulary of public spirit and self-sufficiency. For these writers the societal ideal is the small, independent landowner in the countryside. On the other hand, Whig writers describe such virtue using a vocabulary of commerce and economic progress; for them the ideal is the merchant.

In making such linguistic discriminations Pocock has disassociated himself from historians like Namier, who deride all eighteenth-century English political language as “cant.” But while Pocock’s ideas have proved fertile when applied to England, they are more controversial when applied to the late-eighteenth-century United States. Pocock’s assertion that Jefferson’s attacks on the commercial policies of the Federalists simply echo the language of the Tory opposition in England is at odds with the fact that Jefferson rejected the elitist implications of that group’s notion of virtue and asserted the right of all to participate in commercial society. Indeed, after promptings by Quentin Skinner, Pocock has admitted that a counterlanguage—one of rights and liberties—was probably as important in the political discourse of the late-eighteenth-century United States as the language of civic humanism. Fortunately, it is not necessary to rank the relative importance of all the different vocabularies in which eighteenth-century political argument was conducted. It is sufficient to recognize that any interesting text is probably a mixture of several of these vocabularies, and to applaud the historian who, though guilty of some exaggeration, has done the most to make us aware of their importance.

1) The main idea of the passage is that
(A) civic humanism, in any of its manifestations, cannot entirely explain eighteenth-century political discourse
(B) eighteenth-century political texts are less likely to reflect a single vocabulary than to combine several vocabularies
(C) Pocock’s linguistic approach, though not applicable to all eighteenth-century political texts, provides a useful model for historians of political theory
(D) Pocock has more successfully accounted for the nature of political thought in eighteenth-century England than in the eighteenth-century United States
(E) Pocock’s notion of the importance of language in political texts is a logical extension of the insights of historians of literature

2) According to the passage, Pocock most clearly associates the use of a vocabulary of economic progress with
(A) Jefferson
(B) Federalists
(C) English Whigs
(D) English Tories rural
(E) English landowners

3) The author’s attitude toward Pocock is best revealed by which of the following pairs of words?
(A) “fruitful” (line 2) and “cant” (line 39)
(B) “sharp” (line 16) and “elitist” (line 46)
(C) “naively” (line 17) and “controversial” (line 41)
(D) “fertile” (line 40) and “applaud” (line 60)
(E) “simply” (line 44) and “importance” (line 55)

4) The passage suggests that one of the “assumptions of the 1950s” (line 17) regarding the meaning of a political text was that this meaning
(A) could be established using an approach similar to that used by literary historians
(B) could be definitively established without reference to the text’s historical background
(C) could be closely read in several different ways depending on one’s philosophic approach
(D) was constrained by certain linguistic preconceptions held by the text’s author
(E) could be expressed most clearly by an analytic philosopher who had studied its historical context

5) The author of the passage would most likely agree that which one of the following is a weakness found in Pocock’s work?
(A) the use of the term “language” to describe the expressive features of several diverse kinds of discourse
(B) the overemphatic denigration of the role of the analytic philosopher in establishing the meaning of a political, or indeed any, text
(C) the emphasis on the overriding importance of civic humanism in eighteenth-century English political thought
(D) the insistence on a single linguistic dichotomy to account for political thought in eighteenth-century England and the United States
(E) the assignment of certain vocabularies to particular parties in eighteenth-century England without taking note of how these vocabularies overlapped

6) Which one of the following best describes the organization of the passage?
(A) A description of a thesis is offered, specific cases are considered, and an evaluation is given.
(B) A thesis is brought forward, the thesis is qualified, and evidence that calls the qualification into question is stated.
(C) A hypothesis is described, examples that suggest it is incorrect are summarized, and supporting examples are offered.
(D) A series of evaluations are given, concrete reasons are put forward, and a future direction for research is suggested.
(E) Comparisons and contrasts are made, some categories of evaluation are suggested, and a framework for applying these categories is implied.

The more frequently employees that take a break for guided relaxation exercises during working hours each week, the fewer sick days they take.  Even workers who take a guided relaxation break once a week during working hours take less sick leave than those who do not perform relaxation.  Therefore, if companies started guided relaxation programs, the absentee rate in those companies would decrease significantly.Which of the following, if true, most seriously weakens the argument above?

A)  Employees who do guided relaxation exercises during working hours occasionally fall asleep for short periods of time after the exercises.
B)  Employees who are frequently absent are the least likely to cooperate with or to join a corporate relaxation program.
C)  Employees who do guided relaxation exercises only once a week in their company’s fitness program usually also do relaxation exercises at home.
D)  Employees who do guided relaxation exercises in their company’s relaxation program use their working time no more productively than those who do not do relaxation exercises.
E)  Employees do guided relaxation exercises during working hours take slightly longer lunch breaks than employees who do not do relaxation exercises.

Robinson is a botanist whose dream is to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii, a place now awash with introduced species of plants and animals.

A)who has the dream to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,
B) whose dream it is to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,
C) who it is his dream to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,
D) that is dreaming to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,
E) whose dream is to reestablish an authentic pre-human piece of Hawaii,

Despite no proof that the consumption of any particular foods reverse hardening of the arteries, studies indicate that refraining from eating certain foods could help reverse blockage of coronary arteries, the blood vessels that feed the heart.
(A) Despite no proof that the consumption of any particular foods reverse hardening of the arteries, studies indicate that refraining from eating certain foods could
(B) Despite no foods having been proved to reverse hardening of the arteries when consumed, studies indicate that refraining from eating certain foods can
(C) Although the consumption of no particular foods have been proved to reverse hardening of the arteries, studies indicate that to refrain from eating certain foods could
(D) Although not proved that the consumption of any foods reverse hardening of the arteries, studies indicate that refraining from eating certain foods can
(E) Although it has not been proved that the consumption of any particular food will reverse hardening of the arteries, studies indicate that refraining from eating certain foods can

According to a recent theory, Archean-age gold-quartz vein systems were formed over two billion years ago from magnetic fluids that originated from molten granite-like bodies deep beneath the surface of the Earth. This theory is contrary to the widely held view that the systems were deposited from metamorphic fluids, that is, from fluids that formed during the dehydration of wet sedimentary rocks.
The recently developed theory has considerable practical importance. Most of the gold deposits discovered during the original gold rushes were exposed at the Earth’s surface and were found because they had shed trails of alluvial gold that were easily traced by simple prospecting methods. Although these same methods still lead to an occasional discovery, most deposits not yet discovered have gone undetected because they are buried and have no surface expression.

The challenge in exploration is therefore to unravel the subsurface geology of an area and pinpoint the position of buried minerals. Methods widely used today include analysis of aerial images that yield a broad geological overview; geophysical techniques that provide data on the magnetic, electrical, and mineralogical properties of the rocks being investigated; and sensitive chemical tests that are able to detect the subtle chemical halos that often envelop mineralization. However, none of these high-technology methods are of any value if the sites to which they are applied have never mineralized, and to maximize the chances of discovery the explorer must therefore pay particular attention to selecting the ground formations most likely to be mineralized. Such ground selection relies to varying degrees on conceptual models, which take into account theoretical studies of relevant factors.

These models are constructed primarily from empirical observations of known mineral deposits and from theories of ore-forming processes. The explorer uses the models to identify those geological features that are critical to the formation of the mineralization being modeled, and then tries to select areas for exploration that exhibit as many of the critical features as possible.

1) The author is primarily concerned with
(A) advocating a return to an older methodology
(B) explaining the importance of a recent theory
(C) enumerating differences between two widely used methods
(D) describing events leading to a discovery
(E) challenging the assumptions on which a theory is based

2) According to the passage, the widely held view of Archean-age gold-quartz vein systems is that such systems
(A) were formed from metamorphic fluids
(B) originated in molten granite-like bodies
(C) were formed from alluvial deposits
(D) generally have surface expression
(E) are not discoverable through chemical tests

3) The passage implies that which of the following steps would be the first performed by explorers who wish to maximize their chances of discovering gold?
(A) Surveying several sites known to have been formed more than two billion years ago
(B) Limiting exploration to sites known to have been formed from metamorphic fluid
(C) Using an appropriate conceptual model to select a site for further exploration
(D) Using geophysical methods to analyze rocks over a broad area
(E) Limiting exploration to sites where alluvial gold has previously been found

4) Which of the following statements about discoveries of gold deposits is supported by information in the passage?
(A) The number of gold discoveries made annually has increased between the time of the original gold rushes and the present.
(B) New discoveries of gold deposits are likely to be the result of exploration techniques designed to locate buried mineralization.
(C) It is unlikely that newly discovered gold deposits will ever yield as much as did those deposits discovered during the original gold rushes.
(D) Modern explorers are divided on the question of the utility of simple prospecting methods as a source of new discoveries of gold deposits.
(E) Models based on the theory that gold originated from magnetic fluids have already led to new discoveries of gold deposits.

5) It can be inferred from the passage that which of the following is easiest to detect?
(A) A gold-quartz vein system originating in magnetic fluids
(B) A gold-quartz vein system originating in metamorphic fluids
(C) A gold deposit that is mixed with granite
(D) A gold deposit that has shed alluvial gold
(E) A gold deposit that exhibits chemical halos

6) The theory mentioned in line 1 relates to the conceptual models discussed in the passage in which of the following ways?
(A) It may furnish a valid account of ore-forming processes, and, hence, can support conceptual models that have great practical significance.
(B) It suggests that certain geological formations, long believed to be mineralized, are in fact mineralized, thus confirming current conceptual models.
(C) It suggests that there may not be enough similarity across Archean-age gold-quartz vein systems to warrant the formulation of conceptual models.
(D) It corrects existing theories about the chemical halos of gold deposits, and thus provides a basis for correcting current conceptual models.
(E) It suggests that simple prospecting methods still have a higher success rate in the discovery of gold deposits than do more modern methods.

7) According to the passage, methods of exploring for gold that are widely used today are based on which of the following facts?
(A) Most of the Earth’s remaining gold deposits are still molten.
(B) Most of the Earth’s remaining gold deposits are exposed at the surface.
(C) Most of the Earth’s remaining gold deposits are buried and have no surface expression.
(D) Only one type of gold deposit warrants exploration, since the other types of gold deposits are found in regions difficult to reach.
(E) Only one type of gold deposit warrants exploration, since the other types of gold deposits are unlikely to yield concentrated quantities of gold.

It can be inferred from the passage that the efficiency of model-based gold exploration depends on which of the following?
I) The closeness of the match between the geological features identified by the model as critical and the actual geological features of a given area
II) The degree to which the model chosen relies on empirical observation of known mineral deposits rather than on theories of ore-forming processes
III) The degree to which the model chosen is based on an accurate description of the events leading to mineralization
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II and III

While there is no blueprint for transforming a largely government-controlled economy into a free one, the experience of the United Kingdom since 1979 clearly shows one approach that works: privatization, in which state-owned industries are sold to private companies. By 1979, the total borrowings and losses of state-owned industries were running at about £3 billion a year. By selling many of these industries, the government has decreased these borrowings and losses, gained over £34 billion from the sales, and now receives tax revenues from the newly privatized companies. Along with a dramatically improved overall economy, the government has been able to repay 12.5 percent of the net national debt over a two-year period.
In fact, privatization has not only rescued individual industries and a whole economy headed for disaster, but has also raised the level of performance in every area. At British Airways and British Gas, for example, productivity per employee has risen by 20 percent. At Associated British Ports, labor disruptions common in the 1970’s and early 1980’s have now virtually disappeared. At British Telecom, there is no longer a waiting list—as there always was before privatization—to have a telephone installed.

Part of this improved productivity has come about because the employees of privatized industries were given the opportunity to buy shares in their own companies. They responded enthusiastically to the offer of shares; at British Aerospace, 89 percent of the eligible work force bought shares; at Associated British Ports, 90 percent; and at British Telecom, 92 percent. When people have a personal stake in something, they think about it, care about it, work to make it prosper. At the National Freight Consortium, the new employee-owners grew so concerned about their company’s profits that during wage negotiations they actually pressed their union to lower its wage demands.

Some economists have suggested that giving away free shares would provide a needed acceleration of the privatization process. Yet they miss Thomas Paine’s point that “what we obtain too cheap we esteem too lightly.” In order for the far-ranging benefits of individual ownership to be achieved by owners, companies, and countries, employees and other individuals must make their own decisions to buy, and they must commit some of their own resources to the choice.

1) According to the passage, all of the following were benefits of privatizing state-owned industries in the United Kingdom EXCEPT:
(A) Privatized industries paid taxes to the government.
(B) The government gained revenue from selling state-owned industries.
(C) The government repaid some of its national debt.
(D) Profits from industries that were still state-owned increased.
(E) Total borrowings and losses of state-owned industries decreased.

2) According to the passage, which of the following resulted in increased productivity in companies that have been privatized?
(A) A large number of employees chose to purchase shares in their companies.
(B) Free shares were widely distributed to individual shareholders.
(C) The government ceased to regulate major industries.
(D) Unions conducted wage negotiations for employees.
(E) Employee-owners agreed to have their wages lowered.

3) It can be inferred from the passage that the author considers labor disruptions to be
(A) an inevitable problem in a weak national economy
(B) a positive sign of employee concern about a company
(C) a predictor of employee reactions to a company’s offer to sell shares to them
(D) a phenomenon found more often in state-owned industries than in private companies
(E) a deterrence to high performance levels in an industry

4) The passage supports which of the following statements about employees buying shares in their own companies?
(A) At three different companies, approximately nine out of ten of the workers were eligible to buy shares in their companies.
(B) Approximately 90% of the eligible workers at three different companies chose o buy shares in their companies.
(C) The opportunity to buy shares was discouraged by at least some labor unions.
(D) Companies that demonstrated the highest productivity were the first to allow their employees the opportunity to buy shares.
(E) Eligibility to buy shares was contingent on employees’ agreeing to increased work loads.

5) Which of the following statements is most consistent with the principle described in lines 30-32?
(A) A democratic government that decides it is inappropriate to own a particular industry has in no way abdicated its responsibilities as guardian of the public interest.
(B) The ideal way for a government to protect employee interests is to force companies to maintain their share of a competitive market without government subsidies.
(C) The failure to harness the power of self-interest is an important reason that state-owned industries perform poorly.
(D) Governments that want to implement privatization programs must try to eliminate all resistance to the free-market system.
(E) The individual shareholder will reap only a minute share of the gains from whatever sacrifices he or she makes to achieve these gains.

6) Which of the following can be inferred from the passage about the privatization process in the United Kingdom?
(A) It depends to a potentially dangerous degree on individual ownership of shares.
(B) It conforms in its most general outlines to Thomas Paine’s prescription for business ownership.
(C) It was originally conceived to include some giving away of free shares.
(D) It has been successful, even though privatization has failed in other countries.
(E) It is taking place more slowly than some economists suggest is necessary.

7) The quotation in line 39 is most probably used to
(A) counter a position that the author of the passage believes is incorrect
(B) state a solution to a problem described in the previous sentence
(C) show how opponents of the viewpoint of the author of the passage have supported their arguments
(D) point out a paradox contained in a controversial viewpoint
(E) present a historical maxim to challenge the principle introduced in the third paragraph

Seeking a competitive advantage, some professional service firms (for example, firms providing advertising, accounting, or health care services) have considered offering unconditional guarantees of satisfaction. Such guarantees specify what clients can expect and what the firm will do if it fails to fulfill these expectations. Particularly with first-time clients, an unconditional guarantee can be an effective marketing tool if the client is very cautious, the firm’s fees are high, the negative consequences of bad service are grave, or business is difficult to obtain through referrals and word-of-mouth.

However, an unconditional guarantee can sometimes hinder marketing efforts. With its implication that failure is possible, the guarantee may, paradoxically, cause clients to doubt the service firm’s ability to deliver the promised level of service. It may conflict with a firm’s desire to appear sophisticated, or may even suggest that a firm is begging for business. In legal and health care services, it may mislead clients by suggesting that lawsuits or medical procedures will have guaranteed outcomes. Indeed, professional service firms with outstanding reputations and performance to match have little to gain from offering unconditional guarantees. And any firm that implements an unconditional guarantee without undertaking a commensurate commitment to quality of service is merely employing a potentially costly marketing gimmick.

1) The primary function of the passage as a whole is to
(A) account for the popularity of a practice
(B) evaluate the utility of a practice
(C) demonstrate how to institute a practice
(D) weigh the ethics of using a strategy
(E) explain the reasons for pursuing a strategy

2) All of the following are mentioned in the passage as circumstances in which professional service firms can benefit from offering an unconditional guarantee EXCEPT:
(A) The firm is having difficulty retaining its clients of long standing.
(B) The firm is having difficulty getting business through client recommendations.
(C) The firm charges substantial fees for its services.
(D) The adverse effects of poor performance by the firm are significant for the client.
(E) The client is reluctant to incur risk.

3) Which of the following is cited in the passage as a goal of some professional service firms in offering unconditional guarantees of satisfaction?
(A) A limit on the firm’s liability
(B) Successful competition against other firms
(C) Ability to justify fee increases
(D) Attainment of an outstanding reputation in a field
(E) Improvement in the quality of the firm’s service

4) The passage’s description of the issue raised by unconditional guarantees for health care or legal services most clearly implies that which of the following is true?
(A) The legal and medical professions have standards of practice that would be violated by attempts to fulfill such unconditional guarantees.
(B) The result of a lawsuit of medical procedure cannot necessarily be determined in advance by the professionals handling a client’s case.
(C) The dignity of the legal and medical professions is undermined by any attempts at marketing of professional services, including unconditional guarantees.
(D) Clients whose lawsuits or medical procedures have unsatisfactory outcomes cannot be adequately compensated by financial settlements alone.
(E) Predicting the monetary cost of legal or health care services is more difficult than predicting the monetary cost of other types of professional services.

5) Which of the following hypothetical situations best exemplifies the potential problem noted in the second sentence of the second paragraph (lines 14-17)?
(A) A physician’s unconditional guarantee of satisfaction encourages patients to sue for malpractice if they are unhappy with the treatment they receive.
(B) A lawyer’s unconditional guarantee of satisfaction makes clients suspect that the lawyer needs to find new clients quickly to increase the firm’s income.
(C) A business consultant’s unconditional guarantee of satisfaction is undermined when the consultant fails to provide all of the services that are promised.
(D) An architect’s unconditional guarantee of satisfaction makes clients wonder how often the architect’s buildings fail to please clients.
(E) An accountant’s unconditional guarantee of satisfaction leads clients to believe that tax returns prepared by the accountant are certain to be accurate.

6) The passage most clearly implies which of the following about the professional service firms mentioned in line 22?
(A) They are unlikely to have offered unconditional guarantees of satisfaction in the past.
(B) They are usually profitable enough to be able to compensate clients according to the terms of an unconditional guarantee.
(C) They usually practice in fields in which the outcomes are predictable.
(D) Their fees are usually more affordable than those charged by other professional service firms.
(E) Their clients are usually already satisfied with the quality of service that is delivered.

It is an oversimplified view of cattle raising to say that all one has to do with cattle is leave them alone while they feed themselves, corral them, and to drive them to market when the time is ripe.
(A) all one has to do with cattle is leave them alone while they feed themselves, corral them, and to
(B) all one has to do with cattle is to leave them alone to feed themselves, to corral them, and
(C) all one has to do with cattle is leave them alone while they feed themselves and then corral them and
(D) the only thing that has to be done with cattle is leave them alone while they feed themselves, corral them, and
(E) the only thing that has to be done with cattle is to leave them alone while they feed themselves, to corral them, and

Migraine, the most debilitating common form of headache, afflicts perhaps 18 million Americans, who collectively lose 64 million workdays a year, and they cost the nation $50 billion in medical expenses and lost work time.

(A) year, and they cost the nation $50 billion in medical expenses and lost
(B) year and thus cost the nation $50 billion in medical expenses and lost
(C) year, so as to cost the nation $50 billion in medical expenses and lost
(D) year that costs the nation $50 billion in lost medical expenses and
(E) year, which thus cost the nation $50 billion in lost medical expenses and

Some commentators complain that a litigation explosion in the past decade has led to unreasonably high costs for U.S. businesses by encouraging more product liability suits against manufacturers. However, these complaints are based mainly on myth. Statistics show that the number of successful product liability suits has remained almost the same, and the average sum awarded in damages has grown no faster than the inflation rate.
Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument above?

(A) The number of unsuccessful suits has skyrocketed, imposing huge new legal expenses on businesses.
(B) Several of the largest awards ever made in product liability cases occurred within the last two years.
(C) The rise of the consumer movement has encouraged citizens to seek legal redress for product flaws.
(D) Lawyers often undertake product liability cases on a contingency basis, so their payment is based on the size of the damages awarded.
(E) Juries often award damages in product liability suits out of emotional sympathy for an injured consumer.

According to a review of 38 studies of patients suffering from water retention, a large majority of the patients reported that fasting eased their suffering considerably.  Yet fasting is not used to treat water retention even though the conventional medications often has serious side effects.Which of the following, if true, best explains the fact that fasting is not used as a treatment for water retention?

A. For a small percentage of patients with water retention, fasting induces a temporary sense of nausea
B. Getting patients with water retention to fast regularly is more difficult than getting healthy patients to do so.
C.  Fasting regularly over a long period of time can lead to temporary impairment of balance comparable to that induced by consuming several ounces of alcohol.
D.  The dramatic shifts in water retention connected with fasting have not been traced to particular changes in brain chemistry.
E.  The water retention returns in full force as soon as the fast is broken by even a small meal.

The burden of maintaining the U.S. highway system falls disproportionately on the trucking industry. Trucks represent only about 10 percent of the vehicles on U.S. roads. Yet road use taxes assessed on trucks amount to almost half the taxes paid for highway upkeep and repair.
Which of the following, if true, would most weaken the argument above?

(A) The trucking industry has enjoyed record after-tax profits in three of the past four years.
(B) Because of their weight, trucks cause over 50 percent of the damage sustained by highway surfaces each year.
(C) Without an economically viable trucking industry, the cost of goods in the United States would rise significantly.
(D) Road use taxes paid by trucking companies have decreased by 3 percent over the past five years.
(E) Due to years of neglect, U.S. highways today are badly in need of major repairs and rebuilding.

Most employees in the computer industry move from company to company, changing jobs several times in their careers. However, Summit Computers is known throughout the industry for retaining its employees. Summit credits its success in retaining employees to its informal, nonhierarchical work environment.

Which of the following, if true, most strongly supports Summit’s explanation of its success in retaining employees?

(A) Some people employed in the computer industry change jobs if they become bored with
their current projects
(B) A hierarchical work environment hinders the cooperative exchange of ideas that computer
industry employees consider necessary for their work.
(C) Many of Summit’s senior employees had previously worked at only one other computer
company.
(D) In a nonhierarchical work environment, people avoid behavior that might threaten group harmony and thus avoid discussing with their colleagues any dissatisfaction they might have with their jobs.
(E) The cost of living near Summit is relatively low compared to areas in which some other
computer companies are located.

After thirty years of investigation into cell genetics, researchers made startling discoveries in the 1960s and early 1970s which culminated in the development of processes, collectively known as recombinant deoxyribonucleic acid (rDNA) technology, for the active manipulation of a cell’s genetic code. The technology has created excitement and controversy because it involves altering DNA—which contains the building blocks of the genetic code.
Using rDNA technology, scientists can transfer a portion of the DNA from one organism to a single living cell of another. The scientist chemically “snips” the DNA chain of the host cell
at a predetermined point and attaches another piece of DNA from a donor cell at that place, creating a completely new organism.

Proponents of rDNA research and development claim that it will allow scientists to find cures for disease and to better understand how genetic information controls an organism’s development. They also see many other potentially practical benefits, especially in the pharmaceutical industry. Some corporations employing the new technology even claim that by the end of the century all major diseases will be treated with drugs derived from microorganisms created through rDNA technology. Pharmaceutical products already developed, but not yet marketed, indicate that these predictions may be realized.
Proponents also cite nonmedical applications for this technology. Energy production and waste disposal may benefit: genetically altered organisms could convert sewage and other organic
material into methane fuel. Agriculture might also take advantage of rDNA technology to produce new varieties of crops that resist foul weather, pests, and the effects of poor soil.
A major concern of the critics of rDNA research is that genetically altered microorganisms might escape from the laboratory. Because these microorganisms are laboratory creations that, in all probability, do not occur in nature, their interaction with the natural world cannot be predicted with certainty. It is possible that they could cause previously unknown, perhaps incurable diseases. The effect of genetically altered microorganisms on the world’s microbiological predator-prey relationships is another potentially serious problem pointed out by the opponents of rDNA research. Introducing a new species may disrupt or even destroy the existing ecosystem. The collapse of interdependent relationships among species, extrapolated to its extreme, could eventually result in the destruction of humanity.

Opponents of rDNA technology also cite ethical problems with it. For example, it gives scientists the power to instantly cross evolutionary and species boundaries that nature took millennia to establish. The implications of such power would become particularly profound if genetic engineers were to tinker with human genes, a practice that would bring us one step closer to Aldous Huxley’s grim vision in Brave New World of a totalitarian society that engineers human beings to fulfill specific roles.

1) In the passage, the author is primarily concerned with doing which one of the following?
(A) explaining the process and applications of rDNA technology
(B) advocating continued rDNA research and development
(C) providing evidence indicating the need for regulation of rDNA research and development
(D) summarizing the controversy surrounding rDNA research and development
(E) arguing that the environmental risks of rDNA technology may outweigh its medical benefits

2) According to the passage, which one of the following is an accurate statement about
research into the genetic code of cells?
(A) It led to the development of processes for the manipulation of DNA.
(B) It was initiated by the discovery of rDNA technology.
(C) It led to the use of new treatments for major diseases.
(D) It was universally heralded as a great benefit to humanity.
(E) It was motivated by a desire to create new organisms.

3) The potential benefits of rDNA technology referred to in the passage include all of the
following EXCEPT
(A) new methods of waste treatment
(B) new biological knowledge
(C) enhanced food production
(D) development of less expensive drugs
(E) increased energy production

4) Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken an argument of opponents of rDNA
technology?
(A) New safety procedures developed by rDNA researchers make it impossible for genetically
altered microorganisms to escape from laboratories.
(B) A genetically altered microorganism accidentally released from a laboratory is
successfully contained.
(C) A particular rDNA-engineered microorganism introduced into an ecosystem attracts predators that keep its population down.
(D) Genetically altered organisms designed to process sewage into methane cannot survive
outside the waste treatment plant.
(E) A specific hereditary disease that has plagued humankind for generations is successfully
eradicated.

5) The author’s reference in the last sentence of the passage to a society that engineers
human beings to fulfill specific roles serves to
(A) emphasize the potential medical dangers of rDNA technology
(B) advocate research on the use of rDNA technology in human genetics
(C) warn of the possible disasters that could result from upsetting the balance of nature
(D) present Brave New World as an example of a work of fiction that accurately predicted
technological developments
(E) illustrate the sociopolitical ramifications of applying genetic engineering to humans

6) Which one of the following, if true, would most strengthen an argument of the opponents of
rDNA technology?
(A) Agricultural products developed through rDNA technology are no more attractive to
consumers than are traditional crops.
(B) Genetically altered microorganisms have no natural predators but can prey on a wide
variety of other microorganisms.
(C) Drugs produced using rDNA technology cost more to manufacture than drugs produced with traditional technologies.
(D) Ecosystems are impermanent systems that are often liable to collapse, and occasionally do
so.
(E) Genetically altered microorganisms generally cannot survive for more than a few hours in
the natural environment.