Six cards numbered from 1 to 6 are placed in an empty bowl

Six cards numbered from 1 to 6 are placed in an empty bowl. First one card is drawn and then put back into the bowl; then a second card is drawn. If the cards are drawn at random and if the sum of the numbers on the cards is 8, what is the probability that one of the two cards drawn is numbered 5 ?

A. 1/6
B. 1/5
C. 1/3
D. 2/5
E. 2/3

Google Buzz

Subscribe / Share

GHCV tagged this post with: Read 54 articles by
17 Comments Post a Comment
  1. kia says:

    I don’t think that the answer is listed, correst me if I’m wrong:
    probability of drawing 5 in the first round is 1/6, probability of drawing 3 in the second round is also 1/6 so the total probability of getting one 5 is 1/6 times 1/6 = 1/36, plus counting that you can draw 3 and then 5 it is 1/36 + 1/36 = 1/18

    the answer is 1/18 i think

  2. ps says:

    D

    for sum to be 8
    we can have (5,2) (2,5) (1,6) (6,1) (4,4)

    and for having 5 we have 2 cases which is (2,5) (5,2)
    hence 2/5

  3. Bill says:

    “C”
    The card can be selected 1st or second, hence you must come up with all possibilities. (4,4),(3,5),(5,3),(2,6),(6,2)…
    Two of the 5 options contain a 5 so answer is 2/5…

  4. Ankur Chawla says:

    Ans is D

    For sum to be 8, we can have only 5 possibilities : (3,5),(5,3) (2,6), (6,2) and (4,4)

    Prob. of drawing 2 cards one of which is 5 is 2/5

  5. kia says:

    didn’t read carefully:P

  6. kia says:

    answer is D indeed

  7. surabhi says:

    I think it is “C’ -1/3.

  8. omig_01 says:

    Different possibilities of sum tobe 8 are,
    2,6 / 4,4 / 3,5 / 5,3 / 6,2.

    possibility of 5 is 2 times out of 5 .

    so answer is 2/5

    “D”

  9. ismitevijay says:

    the answer appears to be D:

  10. deepak says:

    I will go with option D)2/5

  11. DP says:

    since cards are drawn randomly u can’t make sure that sum wd be 8, therefore total possible events sd 36 instead of 5. I think 1/18 is the correct answer.

  12. aryan says:

    It´s …. 1 / 18…. but if since options are given so i go for 2 / 5.

  13. Kofi says:

    D…

  14. Jordi TC says:

    Principle of composed probabilities
    Probability(one card =5 if ?two cards=8) = Probability(?two cards=8) x Probability(one card =5/?two cards=8)
    Probability(?two cards=8) = Number of wanted outcomes / Total Number of outcomes
    Number of wanted outcomes = 5 which are (2;6) (3;5) (4;4) (6;2) (5;3)
    Total Number of outcomes = 36 equal to 6 outcomes times 6 outcomes
    Probability(?two cards=8) = 5/36
    Probability(one card =5/?two cards=8) = Number of wanted outcomes / Total Number of outcomes
    Number of wanted outcomes = 2 which are (3;5) and (5;3)
    Total Number of outcomes = 5
    Probability(one card =5/?two cards=8) = 2/5
    So Probability(one card =5 if ?two cards=8) = (5/36)*(2/5) = 2/36 = 1/18
    In fact Probability(one card =5 if ?two cards=8) = Probability(5 and 3)
    SINCE 1/18 IS NOT LISTED WE SHOULD UNDERSTAND THAT the DISERED PROBABILITY IS Probability(one card =5/?two cards=8) = 2/5 AND THEREFORE correct answer SHOULD BE D.

  15. Varun says:

    I think its C,
    No of possible outcomes : 53,35,62,26,44,44
    No of favored outcomes : 53,35
    Probability : 2/6 -> 1/3

Leave a Reply




GMAT Demo Class Or Have a Query?

Name :-       

Email :-      

City :-        

Please fill the following Code :- captcha
                   

Mobile :-    

Subject :-    

Connect Now

Archives

Question by Date

February 2012
M T W T F S S
« Jan    
 12345
6789101112
13141516171819
20212223242526
272829  

Join Now

Rss Feed Tweeter button Facebook button Technorati button Reddit button Myspace button Linkedin button Webonews button Delicious button Digg button Flickr button Stumbleupon button Newsvine button Youtube button